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I apologize if this subject had already been discussed, but I'm in a bit of a quandary.

in Matthew 5:23 the word ought is used. Isn't aught more appropriate?
Ought expresses an emotional, practical, or other reason for doing something as in "You ought to do better".
Aught on the other had means "anything". When reading the above verse it seems to me that aught should be used.

What say Ye?

The word "ought" is in fact really two different words with the same spelling:

1. To owe, to require, a duty. [Think of the word "should"]

2. Anything, to any degree. [Think of the word "thing"]

MEANING ONE
Ge 20:9 Then Abimelech called Abraham, and said unto him, What hast thou done unto us? and what have I offended thee, that thou hast brought on me and on my kingdom a great sin? thou hast done deeds unto me that ought not to be done.
Ge 34:7 And the sons of Jacob came out of the field when they heard it: and the men were grieved, and they were very wroth, because he had wrought folly in Israel in lying with Jacob's daughter; which thing ought not to be done.

MEANING TWO
Ge 39:6 And he left all that he had in Joseph's hand; and he knew not ought he had, save the bread which he did eat. And Joseph was a goodly person, and well favoured.
Ge 47:18 When that year was ended, they came unto him the second year, and said unto him, We will not hide it from my lord, how that our money is spent; my lord also hath our herds of cattle; there is not ought left in the sight of my lord, but our bodies, and our lands:
Mt 5:23 Therefore if thou bring thy gift to the altar, and there rememberest that thy brother hath ought against thee;

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