Do spelling changes change the version?

[bibleprotector]

There was a certain man who claims that there are different "versions" of the King James Bible. An example of his evidence? That the word "subtil" is spelt differently in different editions:

2 Samuel 13:3

1611 Edition
But Amnon had a friend, whose name was Ionadab, the sonne of Shimeah, Dauids brother: and Ionadab was a very subtill man.

1769 Edition & PCE
But Amnon had a friend, whose name was Jonadab, the son of Shimeah David's brother: and Jonadab was a very subtil man.

An Americanised edition
But Amnon had a friend, whose name was Jonadab, the son of Shimeah David's brother: and Jonadab was a very subtle man.

The point is only valid if we apply it beyond the "authorised tradition", which is the problem with the newly so-called updated editions (i.e. corrupted). However, to attempt to argue that "subtil" versus "subtill" are "version differences" could be soon understood by a schoolchild, that merely spelling was not "standardised" in former times, and that "subtill" to "subtill" is in no way a meaning change.

A version difference means that the underlying text and/or the translation was altered. Of course, this has not happened if we compare our Pure Cambridge Edition with the 1611 Edition of the King James Bible.